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Is Multi-Gender Sex Better?

Why are there only 2 genders? Here I use a simple genetic algorithm to simulate 4 species. The species and environments are exactly the same except for the ...

User Comments

jfredett commented on 11 Oct 2008

Well, the issue is you're thinking combinatorics- I'm thinking differential equatiosn. We should really be thinking with both. There is a combinatorial nature to the gene reshuffling, but population dynamics (which is also vitally important) is generally described as differential equations over (ideally) the Reals (though you may have complex solutions in some areas). Least, thats how I see it. Sadly a full explanation of my formulation of this is too small to fit in the narrow youtubian margin.

andreaandrewmilne commented on 11 Feb 2009

Dear Henrin, The use of physiological markers, phenotypic or genotypic, as a basis for demarcating people into two sex-types, is fairly arbitrary. True, for theories of evolution, one might reasonably consider how useful it is to spot if another person and you are able to reproduce. But that is just one framework. PS: the better term is natal intersex. Plus people who use medical/surgical means to render themselves trans. Try thinking non-dimorphic at all levels of the human taxonomy. x andrea

toy mangle commented on 05 Jun 2013

One path of reasoning behind this video is entirely flawed; with 2 sexes, to say only 50% of the population can have offspring is incorrect - only infertile humans are unable. If a couple have a child, 100% of them have produced offspring. There are also assumptions at work here that glaze over subtle implications of 4 genders - are all 4 needed to copulate? Is only 1 of said genders impregnated as a result? If so, how would 3 "male" genders mutually evolve? This video contains wrong science.

jacevicki commented on 16 Sep 2009

If the first organisms were retrofitted for their environment, then the reason for change should be evident - a change in the environment. In such cases a faster mutator will have more varied offspring, and natural selection will favour the offspring better adapted to the changing environment. The 'random' in random mutations is that the changes cannot be predicted, but the mutations themselves are minor changes to genetic code, although results can be drastic, like tailless cats for example.

Smidge204 commented on 29 Mar 2009

I'm not sure I completely agree with the premises, though I do think the overall conclusion is still correct. 1) Why would the additional genders not be capable of producing offspring? Why couldn't they be quasi-female with the required anatomy to give birth? 2) Why would the passing on of genetic mutations be limited the way you describe? Unless the mutations were linked to the genes responsible for gender of course, one mutation could possibly be given to all four offspring, or none at all.

Psychentist commented on 29 Nov 2009

@rob92410 and zelos88. First, a hermaphrodite is a naturally occurring animal, which possesses sexual organs of both genders but still requires a mate. They cannot mate with themselves and produce a clone. Second, a human with both sets of organs is not a hermaphrodite, as it is not a normal, natural occurrence. (natural, perhaps, but not normal for the species.) It is called a dual gender condition. There are others, labelled as hermaphrodites with vagipenises. That is an intersex condition.

jfredett commented on 11 Oct 2008

Well, if you think of reproduction and evolution as just math- specifically differential equations, you can try to find an optimimum value for the variable "Number of sexes involved in reproduction" which would lead to a wonderfully complicated equation which might have Real or even Complex values (eg decimal values or values with imaginary parts). Obviously we need to have an integer (whole) number of sexes, so the "nearest" to true optimal- assuming true optimal is not integral, is 2. HTH.

horny4bears commented on 21 Mar 2009

we'd most likely be saying how selfish or silly of a thing two people only needed for offspring when we have all of us together for support PLUS EVERYONE KNOWS MORE IS BETTER, and look we all gained immunities to silly party crashing STD's for as you show'n not much difference is there between two and more meh, sorry heading more to philosphy on you than actual science, which i still bet on a hunch its a thermaldynamic/osmosis bleh, something other than work/effort relations on a large scale

jfredett commented on 10 Oct 2008

I would actually suspect not -- or if any, e. e tends to pop up in differential equations alot, it may work out to that. But to be completely honest I think it's more likely some odd construction of reciprocals and radicals. Nature doesn't tend toward these "nice" numbers as often as people think. Theres a good book out there-- "The Golden Ratio" by Marcus Livio which takes on Phi in nature and how it isn't really there all that much. In any case, it's quite interesting, I think, Math FTW!

horny4bears commented on 21 Mar 2009

not a shabby hack job one, at all, well thought just can't shake the feeling, answer will be found more farther back when you showed the clip on, oh what was it called something genis i think creating the cell membrames etc... will hold more of a reason, for the arguements given here on this perspective, is that a perspective, we wouldnt think it took more time or effort with more or easier with less, it'd be all our thoughts from what is the norm to what is not norm hmm if that make sense

andreaandrewmilne commented on 13 Feb 2009

I dont dispute the biology. The question is how much this female/male dimorphism is either true or useful, as description, categorisation, or explanation of the biology. Personally, Im not impressed at any level, until we get to talk about the influence that such false beliefs have on peoples self-identity, and their identification of others. So, there may be reasonably distinguishable gross physiological structures, eg vagina, clitoris, labia, womb, penis, ovaries, testes, etc. But...

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